Check out this video:
Seems like a nice textbook problem to establish a simple model for the slinky. This is one I came up with: Suppose the slinky consists of N+1 identical masses of mass m connected to their neighbor by a spring of spring constant k. Suppose the position of mass j is xj(t) and x0(0)=0. For convenience, let Ω2=km.
Before the drop
What is the equilibrium positions of the masses before the drop. It is actually quite simple from intuition. The spring above the j-th mass must hold up the weight of the N+1−j masses below it. So xj−xj−1=(N+1−j)gΩ2. This difference equation solves to:
xj(0)=gΩ2(2N−j+1)j2So the equilibrium length of the slinky is: xN(0)=gΩ2N(N+1)2. From now on we'll work in unit where xN(0)=g=1. This is a natural unit system for this problem. By the way, this suggests a characteristic collapse time of the slinky: √xN(0)/g. So if I estimate the equilibrium length of the slinky to be about 1 meter, then the collapse time is roughtly 0.32 seconds, which is reasonable judging from the video. In this unit,
Ω2=N(N+1)2The center of mass of the slinky is at
xcm(0)=2N(N+1)⋅(N+1)(2N+1)6=2N+13(N+1).Note that limN→∞xcm(0)=23, so that in the continuum limit the center of mass is at 1/3 the length of the slinky from the bottom. From this you can already partial see the correct answer: most of the mass is concentrated at the bottom so as the top is release, it is a lot easier to move the mass on the top portion than the bottom portion. Also the net force on every particle is 0 at t=0. So immediately after the release, only the top mass, with the force holding it up vanished, has any appreciable acceleration. All the other masses still think they are still instantaneously in static equilibrium.
Equation of motion
Coming straight from the Lagrangian:
L=m2N∑j=0˙x2j−k2N∑j=1(xj−xj−1)2−mN∑j=0xjwe get the equations of motion:
{¨xj=(xj+1+xj−1−2xj)Ω2−10<j<N¨x0=(x1−x0)Ω2−1¨xN=(xN−1−xN)Ω2−1Let us eliminate gravity by writing:
xj(t)=yj(t)Ω2−t22,and then look for eigenmode solution:
yj=∑kA(k)+y(k)j(t)+A(k)−y(k)j(−t),y(k)j(t)=Ajkeiωkt,where ωk are the eigenmodes' frequencies and Ajk the corresponding amplitude for each mass. First set aside the problem of how to find these and assume we already did. Then the initial conditions are given by these two equations:
∑kAjk(A(k)++A(k)−)=(2N−j+1)j2,∑kAjkωk(A(k)+−A(k)−)=0.The eigenvector Ajk forms an orthonormal set. So the second equation simply gives Ak+=Ak−. And the first equation reduces to:
2A(k)+=∑j(A⊺)kj(2N−j+1)j2Substituting this back to yj, we get the solution
yj=∑kA(k)+Ajk2cosωkt=∑k,lAjk(A⊺)kl(2N−l+1)l2cos(ωkt)We'll show below that:
ω2k=2Ω2(1−coskπN+1)=4Ω2sin2kπ2(N+1)Aj0=1√N+1,Ajk=√2N+1cos[(j+12)kπN+1](k>0),so that:
yj(t)=N∑k,l=0(2−l+1N+1)cos[(j+12)kπN+1]cos[(l+12)kπN+1]cos(2Ωtsinkπ2(N+1)).Here is a plot of xj(t) for 10 particles:
Discussion
The discussion about compression wave having to travel all the way to the bottom is essentially correct. I got the right answer at first try but for the wrong reason. I thought that when you release the top of the slinky, the slinky wants to collapse to the center of mass. For the portion below the center of mass, there is a restoring force upward, but gravity is acting downward so the two cancels, whilst for the portion above the center of mass the restoring force and gravity are in the same direction. But it is apparent from the above figure that portion above the center of mass actually move away from the center of mass momentarily.
Perhaps my reasoning was not completely wrong after all. Consider a small time ϵ right after release, this force of the spring is indeed equal to gravity because after all the slinky was stretched due to gravity. So the bottom part wants to collapse to the center-of-mass and wants to free fall at the same time. The two effects nicely cancel each other. To see this more concretely, consider the series expansion of x(t) in ϵ:
xj(ϵ)−xj(0)=yj(ϵ)−yj(0)−gϵ22∈O(ϵ2(j+1))So the bottom part of the slinky not only experience no force initially, but also no jerk and in fact all moments up to order 2j. So all the lower order derivative of displacement are all magically zero! Well, mathematically, not magically: the sum over sinusoidal function with large phases are exactly constructively interfering. It reminds me of Feynman's interpretation of non-stationary trajectory carrying rapidly varying phases.
Appendix: Eigenmodes
The equation of motion leads to the secular equation:
(λk−1−1−1λk−1⋱⋱⋱−1λk−1−1λk−1)(A0kA1k⋮A(N−1)kANk)=(00⋮00),where λk=2−ω2kΩ2. The secular equation has nontrivial solution when the N+1×N+1 matrix MN+1 has zero determinant. Just apply the definition of the determinant, we have detMN+1=(λk−1)detDN−detDN−1, where DN is the lower right N×N submatrix. detDN satisfies the recurrence relation detDN=λkdetDN−1−detDN−2 with the initial condition detD1=λk−1 and detD2=λ2k−λk−1. The recurrence relation of detDN suggests the solution of the form detDN=ae±ibN. By plugging it in, we obtain the constrain:
λk=2cosb,detDN=a+eibN+a−e−ibN.Using this with the boundary conditions we have:
a+eib+a−e−ib=2cosb−1a+e2ib+a−e−2ib=(2cosb)2−2cosb−1→a+=11+e−iba−=a∗+=11+eib.Therefore
detDN=2ℜea+eibN=cos[b(N+12)]cosb2,and
detMN+1=(λk−1)detDN−detDN−1=(2cosb−1)cos[b(N+12)]−cos[b(N−12)]cosb2.After a bunch of trigonometric identities, this simplifies to:
detMN+1=−2tanb2sinb(N+1).The resonance frequencies are:
ω2kΩ2=2−2coskπN+1=4sin2kπ2(N+1),k=0,1,…,NIt is a not lot more difficult to look for Ajk. It is a lot easier to just state the result:
Aj0=1√N+1,Ajk=√2N+1cos[(j+12)kπN+1](k>0),then check it by using the recurrence relation:
−(Aj−1,k+Aj+1,k)+2coskπ2(N+1)aj,k=0.For those of you who haven't already notice: essentially the secular matrix is diagonalized upon discrete Fourier transformation.
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